YHWH in the New Testament Resource?

Liam said:

The NT writers‘ Old Testament Scriptures no longer contained YHWH in it but was replaces by ‘the LORD’ like we have in our modern day Bibles. So in the NT when they say Lord, sometimes they mean Lord as in the Lord Jesus, sometimes they mean Lord as in ’sir’ as a polite greeting, and other times They mean LORD as in the triune God YHWH. 

Does anyone know of a resource that that attempts to sort these out to find what the original intent was of each NT instance of Lord? I would love to find a resource that does this.

I'm not sure you can "sort them out" Liam. Perhaps there is some intentional ambiguity.

For example,what is "the name above every name" in Philippians 2:9? Given the Isaiah quotation, that's probably obvious. Or is Messiah Jesus the Lord (v.11)?

I don't know of any monographs off the top of my head (although it's quite possible I own some pertinent hard copy items on this subject I haven't gotten to read yet). However, if you will do a broad a search on "the name of God", "tetragrammaton", and the like in your Logos library, you may (depending on the resources you own) find dictionaries and encyclopedias and such that discuss this topic to some level of satisfaction. The fact is there IS evidence that the tetragrammaton (or comparable stand-ins) was used in some of the earliest texts of the LXX. I don't recall the facts perfectly well, but there are Greek texts that have the Name written in Paleo-Hebrew. The name wasn't "given up" as unimportant when translation into Greek occurred.

There are a variety of conclusions that have been made about "the why" of NT's lack of use of the tetragrammaton--some even go as far as asserting this reflects YHWH's will for one suggested reason or another. I would caution against getting too comfortable with any notion that the Tanakh's voiced concern about the Name was somehow abrogated by YHWH Himself, with the NT's usage being a priori evidence of such. There were numerous theo-political cat fights already on-going prior to most of the NT's textual birth, and these, not to mention a significant number of prophetic considerations, might well account for the condition of the NT text as it has come to be known.

Not answering your question, but you're assuming the NT writers had your idea in mind (mentally converting hebrew to greek).  Given the LXX had been in business for centuries, the diaspora might already have locked in the meanings, especially when the prophetic proof texts demanded greek.

Interestingly, the targums had to emphasize the diety, along with some of the early pseudepigrapha. It's as if the NT usage was intensional, stripping the jewish emphasis words.

HansK, thanks for sharing the Bauckham article.

Fascinating reading, and very relevant to the original poster's question (even though it didn't end up going anywhere, i.e. Bauckham's final sentence).

Denise said:

Given the LXX had been in business for centuries, the diaspora might already have locked in the meanings, especially when the prophetic proof texts demanded greek.

I was going to ask you to expand on this, but I think I get what you're saying. I think my take is entirely in the opposite direction, at least as far as the "prophetic" part of what you suggest is concerned. Yeah, the LXX was being used by tons of folks who had lost touch w/ Hebrew...starting in Alexandria, Egypt...in explicit contradiction to what YHWH had demanded ("you will not go down to Egypt again"). And yeah, this...

Denise said:

It's as if the NT usage was intensional, stripping the jewish emphasis words.

...but this (I would assert) is not some sort of affirmation on the part of YHWH to abandon pretty much everything He'd ever said up to that point in favor of "a new go" with a new set of parameters (which is contrary to HIM, much less what He said). Rather, it is simply His working out (at the very least, as a significant facet) of His prophecy that there was going to be a famine of the hearing of the words of YHWH...HIS WORDS--specifically, His HEBREW words. Greek was the language of the prophesied 3rd beast power. Having the NT written in Greek wasn't (as is typically suggested) a "great blessing" and "wisdom" on His part to pick a more "common" language (YHWH has a thing about stuff that's "common", and it ain't friendly) for the purpose of NT and world evangelism. It was the fulfilling of His judgment against a world that was about the enter "the great quiet". You are right...the intensional shift was intentional...but not in any way that should bring anything but horror to people's minds. In essence, as far as His name is concerned, He was making sure not to cast His Pearl before swine. Eventually, that gets undone...again, in accordance w/ prophecy.

Liam said:

Does anyone know of a resource that attempts to sort these out to find what the original intent was of each NT instance of Lord? I would love to find a resource that makes an attempt to sort it out.

Have you considered https://www.logos.com/product/6645/complete-jewish-bible or https://www.logos.com/product/46265/holy-scriptures-tree-of-life-version?