BHS apparatus typo at Num 6:25b?

The Syriac is represented as wn****, but then it says the Hebrew equivalent is wy****? There seems to be a disconnect between teh n- and the y-, no?

NB: I haven’t done Syriac, but it seems to me the n would be a 1cpl, but the Hebrew y is 3ps. Also, I don’t have access to BHS right now, so I don’t know if this is a typo in BHS, a typo in Logos, or if I’m misunderstanding the equivalence between Syriac and Hebrew.

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HJ. van der Wal

Shalom Ben!

I can understand your confusion but this is not a typo. In Syriac the 3rd person m. sg. of the imperfect coincides with the first person pl.

HJ. van der Wal

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1089929#Comment_1089929

FYI:

[quote]

f) The formation of 3 m. sg. impf. by n instead of y (hence always = 1 pl.) distinguishes the Syriac of Edessa together with the Mandaean not only from Hebr., Arab., Ethiop. and Phœn., but also from the western dialects of Palmyr., Aramaic-Palest., Samarit., Nabat. Whether there is any analogy between it and the forms of the impf. with ל in biblical Aramaic and in Talmudic is doubtful (cf. D § 181, Kautzsch, Bibl. Aram. § 47).

Eberhard Nestle, Syriac Grammar with Bibliography, Chrestomathy and Glossary, trans. R. S. Kennedy, vol. 1 (Berlin: H. Reuther’s Verlagsbuchhandlung, 1889), 46 - https://ref.ly/logosres/syrgrmnestle?ref=Nestle.Nestle%2c+Syr.+Gram.+38c&off=4273