Did I miss the post on here for the source of the Hebrew transliteration used in Logos, for morph-tagged English versions of OT (kjv, esv, leb, etc.)? (I saw some posts where some said they did not know source. I even got the same answer myself from logos help personnel.)
In particular, transliteration for qamets or qamets chatuph often seems incorrect and it would be interesting to see what proposed principles led to such decisions. (I saw a post where someone indicated that chatuphs are often transliterated incorrectly as reg. qamets, and also a mention of the ex. of Gn 1:21 [2x transliterated in logos as reg. qamets, but clearly should be chatuph, reduced from cholem in kOl when attached to following noun by maqqeph]. But it seems even more frequent in logos that reg. qamets is transliterated as chatuph.
As in Qal pf 3fs if no metheq - but even some rabbis suggest Massoretes were inconsistent with metheg (Or maybe often assumed familiarity with basic verb patterns. So I saw a pericope that had the same Qal pf 3fs within a couple verses, one with and one without metheg, and logos transliteration rendered them differently, apparently there based on presence and absence of metheg!).
Or Niph impf which I was taught had i-class, daghesh, a-class (so reg. qamets) pattern, but these are often transliterated as chatuph instead in logos.
And many of these verbal examples are transliterated as having chatuph followed by a silent/closing-syllable shewa, even when the next syllable begins with a begadkefat consonant without daghesh (indicating that preceding shewa should be a vocal shewa (or at least medial) and indicating a long, not short, vowel should proceed that.
At any rate, if there is a source, I'd like to be able to examine the underlying reason(s) for those kind of transliterations which seem odd if not plainly incorrect.
[BTW. None of this is to deny or refer to a few cases where even famed grammarians disagree on distinquishing qamets vs. chatuph.]