Question

I see where in John 11, John carefully used a different word (dakryein) for Jesus’ tears, a word that is not used elsewhere in the New Testament. I read this in Borchert. Is there any further research on this topic?

Gerald L. Borchert, John 1–11, vol. 25A of The New American Commentary (Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers, 1996), 360.

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DMB

John 11:35

First, just for your academic specificity, John was a later tradition. 'The writer of John ...'

Second, did you talk with the writer? He 'carefully' used ... really?

Third, if you consulted with late 2nd Temple writings available at the time, you'd notice the verb's typical usage in Jewish writings (Maccabees, Sirach, etc)

Fourth, v35 would give you a better clue, specifically Jewish mourning rites by gender, and the associated greek

Christian Alexander

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1246365#Comment_1246365

John 11:35

First, just for your academic specificity, John was a later tradition. 'The writer of John ...'

Second, did you talk with the writer? He 'carefully' used ... really?

Third, if you consulted with late 2nd Temple writings available at the time, you'd notice the verb's typical usage in Jewish writings (Maccabees, Sirach, etc)

Fourth, v35 would give you a better clue, specifically Jewish mourning rites by gender, and the associated greek

DMB I am citing the NAC Commentary on John.

DMB

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1246372#Comment_1246372

DMB I am citing the NAC Commentary on John.

Well, there's your first problem. Commentary writers that assign peculiarity/emotion to a writer, need to demonstrate the writer's intent (not easy). Especially just opening a Septuagint (the 'graphia' of the times) would do the trick!