I do not understand the divorced woman in 1 Corinthians 7:10–11. I have read commentaries. Is this Paul’s own position on marriage?
I give this charge (Not I, but the Lord)… in other words Paul is delivering the message; but the message/instruction is from the Lord. My 2 cents…
DAL
God's charge with marriage is for their not to be a divorce. Through out the Old Testament we see this played out with Israel (God's people). God didn't want to divorce His people, but because of their willingness to continue to sin, God did.
So the charge to the married in 1 Cor 7:10 is simple and understandable, "A wife is not to depart from her husband." God wants the married to stay with they ones they are married to.
Then verse 11: "But even if she does depart let her be reconciled to her husband. A husband is not to divorce his wife." I think Paul is setting the groundwork for verses 12-16 which follow.
Paul seems to be firming up what they should have already known to actually get to verse 12. It "seems" there was a question about a Jew married to a Gentile which the "who does not believe" alludes to. In my words.... "If you are married to an unbeliever, then stay married!"
My 4 cents....
God's charge with marriage is for their not to be a divorce.
I suppose YHWH wasn't on-board with the 'Moses allowance' for about 1,500 years?
God's charge with marriage is for their not to be a divorce. I suppose YHWH wasn't on-board with the 'Moses allowance' for about 1,500 years?
Well, that's where Matthew 19:8 comes into play, doesn't it?
Quick - add some references to Faithlife software or books ... otherwise it sounds like a theological discussion I should skip
And the morning, Marcion awoke, and said 'Well gee, no kidding!' And Logos has a great Marcion selection (more accurately Marcion quoter selection).
Actually, I'm solidly into Christian's queried book 'Jesus and the Forces of Death' ... who right off the bat, delves into this very problem. Good book.
Thank you ... I'll need to see if my to read stack can support another book
Notice....it was Moses that allowed it but from the beginning it was not so -
“He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.” -Matthew 19:8. In other words... Jesus makes it appear that God never really sanctioned divorce...
Notice also Mat 19:4-5.... it implies that God meant for marriage to to be forever... until death... the same is implied in 1 Cor 7:1-5. Even if a Christian is married to a non-Christian... (which seems to be a question that was asked of Paul - but we don't know that) ... they are to stay married.
For the new Jewish Christians.... that was strong talk.
imho --- [8-|]
I suppose YHWH wasn't on-board with the 'Moses allowance' for about 1,500 years? Notice....it was Moses that allowed it but from the beginning it was not so - ... For the new Jewish Christians.... that was strong talk.
...
Obviously, I was referring to Jesus, xnman. But not often discussed is 'Moses' being on his own (the Law). Inspired-thing and all that. Thousands and thousands of invalid divorces and no hint from the prophets.
BTW Jesus was talking to new Christians?
I suppose YHWH wasn't on-board with the 'Moses allowance' for about 1,500 years? Notice....it was Moses that allowed it but from the beginning it was not so - ... For the new Jewish Christians.... that was strong talk. Obviously, I was referring to Jesus, xnman. But not often discussed is 'Moses' being on his own (the Law). Inspired-thing and all that. Thousands and thousands of invalid divorces and no hint from the prophets. BTW Jesus was talking to new Christians?
Since Jesus was alive..... and thus living under the Law of Moses....and since Christians only came to be after the death of Jesus....then Jesus was talking to His people....the Jews.... who lived under the Law of Moses....
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Christian, Did you happen to read from the same chapter, verse 12?
"To the rest I say this (I, not the Lord): If any brother has a wife who..."
I think that this makes it rather plain. Verse 10 is, according to Paul, Gods word on the matter and not Paul's own.
"To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord)..."
Where-as verse 12 is Pauls own opinion on the issue and not a command from God.
Context, Context, Context...
My focus in such disputes is what did the Jewish author think? Therefore my search result:
As much as I love to discuss the bible... and believe me, I love it.... and because of that... it is very easy for me to get into the various discussions that are often proposed on these threads.... There have been times I have even proposed a discussion....
But, alas, Phil Gons is right and I will try harder to abstain and resist the temptation to get involved.
sigh!
