Does the Didache dictate that the "Lord's Supper" was to involve a real meal? I read Douglas, Sally. Early Church Understandings of Jesus as the Female Divine: The Scandal of the Scandal of Particularity. New York: Bloomsbury, 2016. and it said that the Didache indicated that its audience would have a meal in conjunction with the Eucharist but when I looked for the reference I cannot find it.