Matthew 3:17

Christian Alexander
Christian Alexander Member Posts: 3,008 ✭✭
edited November 21 in English Forum

I do not want this to be considered an interpretive question. I am looking at the syntax and morphology of the Greek text of Matthew 3. The verse in question is v. 17. 

καὶ ἰδοὺ φωνὴ ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν λέγουσα· οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός, ἐν ᾧ εὐδόκησα. Matthew 3:17

εὐδόκησα is Aorist but ESV translates it as Present i.e. "with whom I am well pleased"

I can see how this translation could have happened if the Greek verb had been in the perfect tense, as that would have meant "with whom I have been and am currently still well-pleased," which is essentially what the ESV translation says. However, the ordinary translation of Aorist is simple past tense. Why is this translation of εὐδόκησα not in the past tense? Is it because the verb εὐδόκεω lacks a perfect form, as the morphology seems to suggest? I have read a few grammars to only find one talk about this usage (Herbert Weir Smyth, Mounce, Steven Runge, Rodney A. Whitacre, Merkle and Plummer, Beginning with New Testament Greek, John Dobson's Learn New Testament Greek, Biblical Words and Their Meaning: An Introduction to Lexical Semantics Moises Silva, Wallace's The Basics of New Testament Syntax). 

Could it be benefical to read Greek dictionaries on this word to find my answer? Also does Wallace's big Greek Grammar discuss this topic? I could not find anything in his basics text. AT Robertson's was the best grammar to explain this term. But I am still not pleased with this. 

A. T. Robertson discusses this under gnomic aorist, saying "It is not certain that εὐδόκησα (Mt. 3:17; 17:5; Mk. 1:11; Lu. 3:22) belongs here. It may be merely an example of the timeless aorist used in the present, but not gnomic. See under (ε). Burton (N. T. Moods and Tenses, p. 29) finds it difficult and thinks it originally "inceptive" (ingressive)."

I do not have Burton's work. Does anyone on the forum have it? 

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  • Don Awalt
    Don Awalt Member Posts: 3,521 ✭✭✭

    Are you referring to "Syntax of the Moods and Tenses in New Testament Greek"? I have it, here you go re: Matt 3:17...

    ---

    The Aorist Indicative. Burton §54–55

    55. The Aorist εὐδόκησα in Matt. 3:17; 17:5; Mark 1:11; Luke 3:22; 2 Pet. 1:17, may be explained — (a) as a Historical Aorist having reference to a specific event as its basis. I was well pleased with thee, e.g. for receiving baptism. If all the instances were in connection with the baptisms this would be the most natural explanation. But for those that occur in connection with the account of the transfiguration this explanation fails, and is probably therefore not the true explanation of any of the instances. (b) as a comprehensive Historical Aorist covering the period of Christ’s preincarnate existence. Cf. John 17:5, 24; see W. N. Clarke, Com. on Mark 1:11. If the passages were in the fourth gospel, and especially if they contained some such phrase as πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου, this explanation would have much in its favor. The absence of such limiting phrase, and the fact that the passages are in the synoptic gospels are opposed to this explanation. (c) as a comprehensive Historical Aorist, having the force of an English Perfect, and referring to the period of Christ’s earthly existence up to the time of speaking. But against this is the absence of any adverbial phrase meaning up to this time, which usually accompanies an Aorist verb used in this sense. Cf. 18 and 52. (d) as an Aorist which has by usage come to have the meaning which is strictly appropriate to the Perfect, I became well pleased with thee, and I am [accordingly] well pleased with thee. Cf. 47. There are a few passages of the Septuagint that seem at first sight to favor this explanation. See Ps. 101:15; Jer. 2:19; Mal. 2:17. Cf. also Matt. 12:18; Luke 12:32. The force of this evidence is, however, greatly diminished by the fact that all these instances are capable of being explained without resort to so unusual a use of the Aorist, that both in the Septuagint and in the New Testament there is in use a regular Present form of this verb, and that the Aorist in the majority of cases clearly denotes past time. (e) as an Inceptive Aorist referring to some indefinite, imagined point of past time at which God is represented as becoming well pleased with Jesus. But since this point is not thought of as definitely fixed, English idiom requires a Perfect tense. Cf. 52 (p. 27), 54. It may be described, therefore, as an Inceptive Aorist equivalent to an English Perfect, and may be rendered, I have become well pleased. This, however, can only be a vivid way of saying, I am well pleased. If then this view is correct, the rendering of the English versions is a free but substantially correct paraphrase. A true Perfect would affirm the present state of pleasure and imply the past becoming pleased. The Aorist affirms the becoming pleased and leaves the present pleasure to be suggested. This explanation, therefore, differs from the preceding (d) in that it does not suppose the Aorist of this verb to have acquired the power of expressing an existing result, but judges the existing result to be only suggested by the affirmation of the past fact. This is rhetorical figure, on the way to become grammatical idiom, but not yet become such. Manifestly similar is the use of προσεδέξατο in Isa. 42:1, and of εὐδόκησεν in Matt. 12:18. Indeed, if Matt. 12:18 represents a current translation of Isa. 42:1, our present passages were probably affected in form by this current rendering of the Isaiah passage. Similar also are ἐκάθισαν in Matt. 23:2, and ἔμαθον in Phil. 4:11. In neither case is there any clearly established usage of the Aorist for Greek Perfect; in neither is there apparent any reference to a definite point of past time; in both the real fact intended to be suggested is the present state.

  • Christian Alexander
    Christian Alexander Member Posts: 3,008 ✭✭

    Thanks Don. That is what I wanted, partially. I wanted to get a deeper view of this verse and its tense and position in morphology. I cannot wait to see how this goes. 

  • MJ. Smith
    MJ. Smith Member, MVP Posts: 53,072 ✭✭✭✭✭

    Could it be benefical to read Greek dictionaries on this word to find my answer?

    Consider the possibility that the answer is better considered by syntax and semantics than by vocabulary and grammar.

    Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."

  • Christian Alexander
    Christian Alexander Member Posts: 3,008 ✭✭

    I do not understand what you mean MJ. Can you explain? I always have believed syntax refers to grammar, while semantics refers to meaning. I have read commentaries but I do not see anything on the Greek form of Matthew 3:17. 

  • MJ. Smith
    MJ. Smith Member, MVP Posts: 53,072 ✭✭✭✭✭

    I do not understand what you mean MJ. Can you explain? I always have believed syntax refers to grammar, while semantics refers to meaning. I have read commentaries but I do not see anything on the Greek form of Matthew 3:17

    Syntax is a narrower field than grammar -- syntax emphasizes context which contributes more to the understanding of the meaning. My experience is that grammar books are used from the beginning in classes for dead languages; syntax books are introduced in the 2nd or 3rd year.

    In linguistics, the grammar of a natural language is its set of structural rules on speakers' or writers' usage and creation of clauses, phrases, and words. The term can also refer to the study of such rules, a subject that includes phonology, morphology, and syntax, together with phonetics, semantics, and pragmatics. There are, broadly speaking, two different ways to study grammar: traditional grammar and theoretical grammar. . . . 

    Outside linguistics, the word grammar often has a different meaning. It may be used more widely to include rules of spelling and punctuation, which linguists would not typically consider as part of grammar but rather of orthography, the conventions used for writing a language. It may also be used more narrowly to refer to a set of prescriptive norms only, excluding the aspects of a language's grammar which do not change or are clearly acceptable (or not) without the need for discussions. Jeremy Butterfield claimed that, for non-linguists, "Grammar is often a generic way of referring to any aspect of English that people object to".


    For syntax, I'd fault the Wikipedia for including constituency structures but not dependency. But note it's intermediary role between form (pure grammar) and semantics.

    In linguistics, syntax (/ˈsɪntæks/ SIN-taks) is the study of how words and morphemes combine to form larger units such as phrases and sentences. Central concerns of syntax include word order, grammatical relations, hierarchical sentence structure (constituency), agreement, the nature of crosslinguistic variation, and the relationship between form and meaning (semantics). There are numerous approaches to syntax that differ in their central assumptions and goals.

    Semantics (from Ancient Greek σημαντικός (sēmantikós) 'significant') is the study of reference, meaning, or truth. The term can be used to refer to subfields of several distinct disciplines, including philosophy, linguistics and computer science. 

    My point was that grammatical form of a word is a small sliver of the meaning - look at the tools that will provide the most useful information. Or, put another way, how much time in your high school study of Canterbury Tales or Beowulf or even Shakespeare did you spend discussing the case form of the word?

    Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."

  • Christian Alexander
    Christian Alexander Member Posts: 3,008 ✭✭

    I understand MJ and I am going back to my same question. Is this question un-answerable due to the Greek language? Or can we find similar situations of it? It seems that many of my 'why' Greek questions cannot be answered. I am not sure why. 

    [quote]

    Why is this translation of εὐδόκησα not in the past tense? Is it because the verb εὐδόκεω lacks a perfect form, as the morphology seems to suggest? 

  • MJ. Smith
    MJ. Smith Member, MVP Posts: 53,072 ✭✭✭✭✭

    Why is this translation of εὐδόκησα not in the past tense?

    The only reliable to this question is "because the translator(s) thought their translation more accurately caught the meaning of the text than a past tense" ... unless the translator(s) provide a note explaining their choice this is the only answer that you know to be correct. The morphological form is only one element that determines the author's intending meaning and to over emphasize it is to misunderstand the text.

    Is this question un-answerable due to the Greek language?

    It is true of any translation.

    To answer your question - which use of these uses of the aorist do you think is being used:

    [quote]

    Determining the use of a tense is necessarily an exegetical decision involving a degree of subjectivity. But by carefully considering the following factors, you will have a more objective basis for determining the use of a tense:

    1. Lexical meaning (the verb stem specifies an action that is punctiliar, progressive, stative, etc.)
    2. Grammar (e.g., the voice, mood, transitiveness of the verb)
    3. Context (additional information about the nature of the verb’s action)

    In each section of tense usage, the use listed first occurs most frequently. The rest of the uses are special uses of the tense in the sense that they occur less frequently.


    Aorist

    The aorist may be translated as a simple past, as a present, as a perfect, and occasionally as a future. The lexical meaning of the verb, the context, and other grammatical features determine the use of the aorist. Only in the indicative does the the aorist have a time element. In the other moods, its timeless and indefinite nature is more apparent.


    Constative Aorist

    Function

    The constative aorist presents the action of the verb as a simple whole without regard to the parts of the action or the time involved. The constative aorist best exemplifies the basic meaning of the aorist.

    Examples

    τεσσεράκοντα καὶ ἕξ ἔτεσιν οἰκοδομήθη ὁ ναὸς οὗτος. (John 2:20)
    This temple was built in forty-six years.

    καὶ ἐβασίλευσαν μετὰ τοῦ Χριστοῦ χίλια ἔτη. (Rev. 20:4)
    And they reigned with Christ for a thousand years.

    For more examples, see Matt. 22:28; Rom. 14:3.


    Ingressive Aorist

    Function

    The ingressive aorist stresses the beginning of an action or the entrance into a state or condition. The lexical meaning of the verb stem is usually involved in conveying this sense. The ingressive aorist normally occurs with two types of verbs: (1) with stative verbs, emphasizing the entrance into the state, and (2) with verbs denoting new activity.

    Examples

    διʼ ὑμᾶς ἐπτώχευσεν. (2 Cor. 8:9)
    For your sake He became poor.

    καὶ εἶδον … τὰς ψυχὰς τῶν πεπελεκισμένων … καὶ ἔζησαν. (Rev. 20:4)
    And I saw … the souls of those who had been beheaded … and they came to life.

    For more examples, see Matt. 9:27; Mark 10:21; Luke 15:32; Acts 15:13.


    Culminative Aorist

    Function

    The culminative aorist stresses some action from the viewpoint of the conclusion or result of the act. It may often be translated by an English perfect. Some verbs are inherently culminative in their meaning (e.g., to die, to arrive, to be persuaded).

    Examples

    ἐγὼ γὰρ ἔμαθον … αὐτάρκης εἶναι. (Phil. 4:11)
    For I have learned … to be content.

    ἤγαγεν αὐτὸν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν. (John 1:42)
    He brought him to Jesus.

    For more examples, see Matt. 27:20; Acts 5:4; Acts 13:43; Rev. 5:5.


    Gnomic Aorist

    Function

    The gnomic aorist expresses some generally accepted fact or truth. The aorist is appropriate because time does not affect these truths. Such truths are often stated in a proverbial fashion. Generally, a gnomic aorist can be translated by the English present.

    Examples

    ἐξηράνθη ὁ χόρτος καὶ τὸ ἄνθος ἐξέπεσεν. (1 Pet. 1:24)
    The grass dries up, and the flower falls off.

    καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἠ σοφία ἀπὸ πάντων τῶν τέκνων αὐτῆς. (Luke 7:35)
    And wisdom is justified by all its children.

    For more examples, see Matt. 23:2; James 1:24.

    Clarification

    Occasionally the aorist is used after a condition (either real or implied) almost as a future. These instances should be considered gnomic aorists (cf. Gal. 5:4).

    ἐὰν μή τις μένῃ ἐν ἐμοί, ἐβλήθη ἔξω. (John 15:6)
    If anyone remains not in Me, he will be cast out.


    Epistolary Aorist

    Function

    In using the epistolary aorist, a writer adopts the time frame of his audience and, writing from their time perspective, describes something as already past that is presently happening or has not happened yet. The epistolary aorist should be translated in the present.

    Examples

    ὅν ἔπεμψα πρὸς ὑμᾶς (Col. 4:8)
    whom I send to you

    ὃν ἀνέπεμψα σοι (Philem. 12)
    whom I send to you

    For more examples, see Phil. 2:28; Gal. 6:11.


    Futuristic Aorist

    Function

    The futuristic aorist describes a future event as though it were already complete to emphasize the certainty of the event.

    Examples

    πάντα ὅσα προσεύχεσθε καὶ αἰτεῖσθε, πιστεύετε ὅτι ἐλάβετε, καί ἔσται ὑμῖν. (Mark 11:24)
    All things for which you are praying and asking, believe that you will receive [them], and you will have them [lit. they will be to you].

    ἐν τούτῳ ἐδοξάσθη ὁ πατήρ μου, ἵνα καρπὸν πολὺν φέρητε. (John 15:8)
    My Father will be glorified in this, that you bear much fruit.

    For more examples, see Matt. 18:15; Heb. 4:10.


    Dramatic Aorist

    Function

    The dramatic aorist sometimes mentions a present event as if it were a past event in order to dramatize the action or make it vivid. Translate the dramatic aorist using the English present.

    Examples

    ἔγνων τί ποιήσω. (Luke 16:4)
    I know what I will do.

    For more examples, see Mark 1:11; John 11:41.


    Bob Jones University Greek Faculty, A Handbook for New Testament Greek: Forms and Syntax, ed. Lincoln Mullen, Fourth Edition (Greenville, SC: Bob Jones University Press, 2007), 231–235.

    In this case I also found it useful to decide if the verb is stative or active.

    Then there is the question of the use of the verb:

    [quote]

    εὐδοκεῖν. A late word (see Sturz. de dial. Mac. 168) not found in the Attic writers, constructed (1) with the infinitive in the sense of ‘to be pleased,’ i.e. ‘to resolve,’ εὐδοκοῦμεν μᾶλλον ἐκδημῆσαι, 2 Cor. 5:8; (2) with accusative (see ch. 12:18), ‘to be pleased with,’ ‘take delight in:’ ὁλοκαυτώματα οὐκ εὐδόκησας, Hebr. 10:8; εὐδόκησας, κύριε, τὴν γῆν σου, Ps. 84:1; (3) with εἰς and ἐν with the same meaning as (2) or ‘to be pleased in,’ i.e. to place one’s purpose, decision, or resolution in a thing or person. Here the sense is: My Son, the Beloved in whom my pleasure rests, in whom my plan for the salvation of mankind is centred. Cp. Eph. 1:9, γνωρίσας ἡμῖν τὸ μυστήριον τοῦ θελήματος αὐτοῦ κατὰ τὴν εὐδοκίαν αὐτοῦ ἣν προέθετο ἐν αὐτῷ. εὐδοκεῖν answers to εὐδοκίαν προθέσθαι.

    A. Carr, The Gospel according to St Matthew, Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1896), 103.

    Then there are the notes provided (in my mind) primarily for translators:

    [quote]

    b. aorist act. indic. of εὐδοκέω (LN 25.87) (BAGD 2.a. p. 319): ‘to be well pleased (with/in)’ [BAGD, BNTC, CC, NTC, PNTC, WBC; CEV, ESV, GW, KJV, NASB, NIV, NRSV], ‘to be very pleased (with)’ [BECNT; NCV], ‘to be pleased (with)’ [LN; TEV], ‘to be delighted (with)’ [NICNT], ‘to take delight (in)’ [BAGD; REB], ‘to take great delight (in)’ [NET], ‘to come to delight (in)’ [NIGTC], ‘to take pleasure (in)’ [LN]. The phrase ‘in whom I am well-pleased’ is translated ‘who brings me great joy’ [NLT]. This verb means to be pleased with something or someone, with the implication of resulting pleasure [LN]. . . .

    QUESTION—Why was the Father ‘well pleased’ with the Son?
    God was pleased with Jesus as the Messiah and Suffering Servant [PNTC]. It suggests his pre-temporal election as Messiah [EBC, Lns]. The Father was pleased by Jesus being baptized [BECNT, BNTC, NICNT]. The Father was pleased that Jesus has accepted the role of Suffering Servant [ICC]. The Father has been delighted in the Son from all eternity, but is also pleased with the Son’s acceptance of his mission of atoning for sin [NTC]. The aorist verb is used in a way similar to a perfect tense, and means that God’s pleasure continues to remain on Jesus [CC]. It is a timeless aorist [NTC].


    David Abernathy, An Exegetical Summary of Matthew 1–16, Exegetical Summaries (Dallas, TX: SIL International, 2013), 72-73.

    From these, you should be able to put together a full answer.

    Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."