Looking at Ephesians 5:22 and its textaul variances. I have read a few commentaries (PNTC, NAC, NICNT, BST, and Heine Ronald E. 2002 The Commentaries of Origen and Jerome on St. Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians (ICC; Oxford: Oxford University Press). Why do some important text witnesses leave this verse's imperative verb out entirely, others have an unambiguous imperative telling wives to "be subject" to their own husbands? When a witness uses an imperative in a verse, they put the word "their own husbands" (τοῖς ἰδίοις ἀvδράσιν) before or after the verse. Furthermore, a third-person imperative (ὑποτασσέσθωσαν) is present in some of these testimonies, while a second-person imperative (ὑποτάσσεσθε) is present in others. How can I tell whether there has been a shift in how this is interpreted? If this is not a good question on the forum, let me know and I will delete it.