Father in Jewish and Christian texts

In the Gospel of John, Jesus refers to God as his Father rather than the Father of the nation of Israel. Also, he refers to himself as God's begotten Son. How can I use Logos to find citations where this is also the case in Jewish texts that predate the Gospels?

Find more posts tagged with

Comments

DMB

I'm not sure what you're asking. I did a quick 'the father' NEAR god, relative to the apocrypha and pseudegrapha. Not neat, but illustrates a general usage. Dating is an issue. The other issue, going back further, is that kings as sons of gods,, had gods as fathers.

Graham Criddle

How can I use Logos to find citations where this is also the case in Jewish texts that predate the Gospels?

Do you mean that predate the period of the Gospels - up to about AD33 - or predate when the Gospels were written? Depending on the answer to this, you can either include or not most of the New Testament writings.

And, if before the Gospel period, why would you expect to see references to Jesus referring to God as his father etc?

As you can see, I'm confused by your question - please clarify.

Christian Alexander

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1294028#Comment_1294028

I mean any texts before, during or after the Gospels. There is much more suggested when Jesus calls God his Father, and this is where some of the most profound secrets of the Christian faith are revealed. An eternal relationship within the Godhead is reflected in God as Father and in Christ as his Son. In John's account, Jesus challenges the Jews and declares his own deity. It is uncommon for Jesus to identify himself as divine in the Gospels. The Fourth Gospel is the exception, as Jesus states, "I and the Father are one," and declares, "I AM," three times in Yahweh's temple (John 8). (John 10:30). It is assumed that the Jewish accusation against him is one of self-deification (John 5:18; 19:7). Within the book's overall theological framework, Jesus "constructs" his own divine identity. Jesus ascribes deity to himself. In this case, however, he is not depicted as a rebel, but as God’s obedient son. How can this be seen as a comparison of Jewish and Christian texts?

MJ. Smith

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1294361#Comment_1294361

Okay, I still am not sure what you mean. Here you define what sounds to me like all texts ever written [:O]

I mean any texts before, during or after the Gospels.

I suspect you mean to limit it to Jewish, Greek, Christian, and Latin text within 200 years of the Gospels?

How can this be seen as a comparison of Jewish and Christian texts?

Are there enough Jewish texts referencing Jesus to be able to do this? or are you thinking of God the Father as the element compared? Is that image of God a common Jewish metaphor?

Jewish accusation against him is one of self-deification

To me this implies a program of spiritual discipline. I would say identification of self with the deity. Others may not misread it as I did.