Some help with Theological Question
Some help? I would like to come up with a Syllogism to argue that although Christ has a glorified body that does not mean that God has a glorified body. God is Spirit - John 4:24; 2 Cor 3:17 - Christ is both fully God and fully man - John 1:1; 1:14; - Christ was raised a Spiritual body.
I believe Scripture does not support the statement that now, God has a body.
Can I prove that biblically or am I wrong?
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Why is this important?
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This is not an appropriate question for the Logos forums.
"The whole modern world has divided itself into Conservatives and Progressives. The business of Progressives is to go on making mistakes. The business of Conservatives is to prevent mistakes from being corrected."- G.K. Chesterton
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Er ... ah... one doesn't work from a conclusion to a premise in deductive reasoning such as syllogisms. However, even assuming that the premise "Christ has a glorified body" says or implies anything about God's body is faulty logic. Unless, of course, you have a presupposition that the 3 persons of the trinity are required to have the same bodily type ... which would contradict what you want the logic to prove ... Do you get the idea that you need to go back to your tea or coffee and completely rethink the logic? Then re-ask your question on a more appropriate forum. But I love logic and appreciate the diversion.
Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."
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MJ. Smith said:
Er ... ah... one doesn't work from a conclusion to a premise in deductive reasoning such as syllogisms. However, even assuming that the premise "Christ has a glorified body" says or implies anything about God's body is faulty logic. Unless, of course, you have a presupposition that the 3 persons of the trinity are required to have the same bodily type ... which would contradict what you want the logic to prove ... Do you get the idea that you need to go back to your tea or coffee and completely rethink the logic? Then re-ask your question on a more appropriate forum. But I love logic and appreciate the diversion.
Add to that... Jesus was a man, God (the Father) was not. So even if Jesus had to be glorified, does not mean God did - Joh 13:21, Joh 12:23. The "Glorification" of Jesus was because since He was a man, He had to become (spiritual) God again.
We can "glorify God" also - John 15:8 and others... but that is not what is being said of Jesus being "glorified".
It is an interesting study.
One man's 2 cents.... [8-|]
xn = Christan man=man -- Acts 11:26 "....and the disciples were first called Christians in Antioch".
Barney Fife is my hero! He only uses an abacus with 14 rows!
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Asking for an answer to the theological question would be problematic in the forums.
Asking how to research this in Logos would be perfectly acceptable.
I recommend you repost this question as, "How can I research..." or "What books have you encountered that might help me with this...".
Just FYI.
Eating a steady diet of government cheese, and living in a van down by the river.
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Thanks for the responses.
Question; how can I research to find scriptural support on whether the resurrected body of Christ became part of the Trinity or remained only with Christ.
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CATHOLIC CHURCH: Catechism of the Catholic Church. 2nd Ed. Vatican City : Libreria Editrice Vaticana, 1997 says:
"The condition of Christ’s risen humanity
645 By means of touch and the sharing of a meal, the risen Jesus establishes direct contact with his disciples. He invites them in this way to recognize that he is not a ghost and above all to verify that the risen body in which he appears to them is the same body that had been tortured and crucified, for it still bears the traces of his passion. Yet at the same time this authentic, real body possesses the new properties of a glorious body: not limited by space and time but able to be present how and when he wills; for Christ’s humanity can no longer be confined to earth and belongs henceforth only to the Father’s divine realm.510"
And footnote 510 says: "Cf. Mt 28:9, 16-17; Lk 24:15, 36; Jn 20:14, 17, 19, 26; 21;4""795 Christ and his Church thus together make up the “whole Christ” (Christus totus). The Church is one with Christ."
BTW: I copy/pasted the main text - how can I include the footnote's text (which I typed manually)?
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