I was speaking with a Mormon and he was doing the "the bible is full of contradictions" routine on me, and he mentioned Job 31:35 where Job uses the term "book" before it was ever coined...
Now...aside from the fact that his criticism is about an English rendering of a Hebrew word....It got me to studying this particular passage...
The KJV does indeed say "book" but no other modern translation does; it APPEARS TO ME (non scholar) that there is a word in the KJV interlinear that's not found in the other translations...
Is there any textual information that I can read on this particular passage? The KJV and modern translations seem to be based on different Hebrew Texts for the Old Testament; is this true?