How to locate minuses in the LXX

If I open the Logos LXX and turn on the interlinear I don't see where the portions of the OT in Hebrew are not represented in LXX. For instance I looked for 1 Ki 7:31 it is missing in the LXX but there is no clue in the Interlinear for the minus. Any solution other than Tov's Parallel alignment?
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I guess because it's a reverse interlinear, then the Greek text is primary. On a matter of principle, I don't think I'd expect or want a reverse interlinear to display text from the source language that wasn't included in the receptor language. For example, I wouldn't want the Greek of 1 John 5:7b suddenly appearing in my ESV reverse interlinear when the ESV editors have chosen not to include it. So, yes, the standard (not reverse) interlinear (Tov's, as you say) is the right place to go in my view.
This is my personal Faithlife account. On 1 March 2022, I started working for Faithlife, and have a new 'official' user account. Posts on this account shouldn't be taken as official Faithlife views!
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Mark Barnes said:
I guess because it's a reverse interlinear, then the Greek text is primary. On a matter of principle, I don't think I'd expect or want a reverse interlinear to display text from the source language that wasn't included in the receptor language. For example, I wouldn't want the Greek of 1 John 5:7b suddenly appearing in my ESV reverse interlinear when the ESV editors have chosen not to include it. So, yes, the standard (not reverse) interlinear (Tov's, as you say) is the right place to go in my view.
But Tov is so poorly implemented in Logos [:'(]
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I know. The format badly needs updating to bring it into line with other interlinears, the Hebrew text would benefit from pointing, and parsing information would also be beneficial. I'm not sure the resource has been touched since 2003.
This is my personal Faithlife account. On 1 March 2022, I started working for Faithlife, and have a new 'official' user account. Posts on this account shouldn't be taken as official Faithlife views!
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Mark Barnes said:
I know. The format badly needs updating to bring it into line with other interlinears, the Hebrew text would benefit from pointing, and parsing information would also be beneficial. I'm not sure the resource has been touched since 2003.
Plus: In other packages (both of the other packages) you can compare forms: i.e. search where λογος@Ns = דבר@NPetc.
I wonder if someone from Logos is watching this....
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David Knoll said:
I wonder if someone from Logos is watching this....
I've just emailed Rick Brannan. With all the new Lexham Interlinears coming on stream, it would be good to get a proper Hebrew/Greek interlinear sorted.
This is my personal Faithlife account. On 1 March 2022, I started working for Faithlife, and have a new 'official' user account. Posts on this account shouldn't be taken as official Faithlife views!
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Mark Barnes said:
it would be good to get a proper Hebrew/Greek interlinear sorted.
Mark, I am wondering if you could help me out because I am confused. The Hebrew MT text and the Greek LXX text are not the same text in different languages. They are two different texts, and in some areas they are very very very different.
Why would we need (or want) an interlinear that attempts to merge these two texts?
Thanks
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We don't need an interlinear that 'merges' these texts. No-one is suggesting that. The texts are aligned, not merged. A reverse interlinear more helpful than a traditional interlinear, because we can use it to see (for example) how the LXX editors tended to translated particular Hebrew words. That can be very useful.
A traditional interlinear (at least one formatted the way Logos normally does interlinears) would also have value for at least two reasons: (a) you'd get a reconstructed Hebrew text that you could work with like we already do with the MT, and use in text comparisons and the like, and (b) we could work in the Hebrew text and in a couple of mouse clicks see how the LXX translators dealt with that passage.
David may be able to add more uses, but they would be the two main ones for me.
This is my personal Faithlife account. On 1 March 2022, I started working for Faithlife, and have a new 'official' user account. Posts on this account shouldn't be taken as official Faithlife views!
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tom collinge said:
Why would we need (or want) an interlinear that attempts to merge these two texts?
Caveat: I'm not Septuagint scholar (and the Gottingen LXX looks to be over my head -- and beyond my budget).
That said, let me say this. Somewhere I read that the LXX translation was based on a different Hebrew text tradition than the Masoretic text. Perhaps a Babylonian or Alexandrian text tradition. This suggests that the material of the LXX that differs from the Masoretic text, may still have a (now lost) Hebrew text behind it. Attempts have been made to reconstruct this theoretical text. One of these attempts is the Tov (Parallel Aligned Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Texts of Jewish Scripture) resource mentioned above.
According to the introduction to the Tov resource there are at least fragments in Hebrew of Sirach, and Psalm 151 among the Dead Sea scrolls. To me, this is very intriguing.
Also the LXX manuscripts we have are older than the Masoretic manuscripts we have, suggesting that the LXX may be more reliable (at least as to preserving the original LXX). Many assume that because the Masoretic text is Hebrew it is a more reliable manuscript than the LXX. Certainly, the MT is in Hebrew, and thus has many, many advantages. But that doesn't mean that it is more reliable. In fact, most English translations occassionaly side with the LXX over the MT in places (often because "the Hebrew for this phrase is uncertain"). Finally, the NT quotations of the OT almost always are directly quotations from the LXX (other times paraphrases of the LXX), leading many to attribute greater authority to it than we might otherwise -- certainly the NT writers considered it an authoritative translation.
Help links: WIKI; Logos 6 FAQ. (Phil. 2:14, NIV)
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Thanks Mark for this information, but I am still confused.
I think my confusion is coming from the fact that it sounds like to me that you are assuming that the translators for the LXX used the MT as their source.
This is not true (IMHO). They are different in several ways. For example, Jeremiah and Job are shorter in the LXX. Events occur at different locations within books. Esther is extremely different. (IMHO) The LXX and the MT do not come from the same source text, and the LXX was not translated from MT. So, I am not sure how these texts can be aligned together.
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Richard DeRuiter said:
English translations occassionaly side with the LXX over the MT in places (often because "the Hebrew for this phrase is uncertain")
Or it conforms more to their theological understanding
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tom collinge said:
I think my confusion is coming from the fact that it sounds like to me that you are assuming that the translators for the LXX used the MT as their source. This is not true (IMHO). They are different in several ways. For example, Jeremiah and Job are shorter in the LXX. Events occur at different locations within books. Esther is extremely different. (IMHO) The LXX and the MT do not come from the same source text, and the LXX was not translated from MT. So, I am not sure how these texts can be aligned together.
I'm not assuming the translators for the LXX used the MT as their source, though they clearly have a common heritage. Indeed, I suggested above that one of the uses of this interlinear, would be to compare the Hebrew of the MT and the reconstructed Hebrew from the LXX (see below) text through the Text Comparison tool, to more easily determine where the differences are.
Tov's interlinear has three lines. The first line is the MT. The second line (which only appears when the LXX differs from the MT) is a reconstructed Hebrew text (basically the LXX translated back into biblical Hebrew). The third line is then the LXX. There's are all aligned on each word, as you'd expect from an interlinear. There are obviously notes that explain this process at different places. There is also a second resource that contains some of the variants of the Septuagint.
Here's an extract from the foreword:
Each line of the parallel files shows equivalent elements of the MT and the LXX. Occasionally, there is a second line of Hebrew text.
The first line of the Hebrew records all elements of MT as formal equivalents of the LXX. This recording probably represents the most objective way of registering the relation between the LXX and MT, but at times it is of limited value since the Greek translation was actually made from a different Hebrew text. The second Hebrew line (the Reconstructed Hebrew Source) refers to that Hebrew text.
The second Hebrew line (the Reconstructed Hebrew Source) contains a selection of readings retroverted from Greek to Hebrew, presumably found in the Hebrew parent text of the LXX. At the same time, the reconstruction line contains some remarks on differences between the LXX and MT in matters of translation technique…
The books of the Apocrypha for which an ancient Hebrew source was available have been made an integral part of the data base. The reconstruction of Sirach utilized 8 Hebrew fragments from the Cairo Geniza, Masada, and the Dead Sea Scrolls. Two of these manuscripts have a second, correcting hand, cited separately. Psalm 151 in Hebrew was also discovered among the Dead Sea Scrolls. 1 Esdras includes extensive parallels from Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah. In addition, the Hebrew portions of Baruch 1.1-3.8 were reconstructed by Professor Tov based on the extensive parallels (mainly from Jeremiah).
This is my personal Faithlife account. On 1 March 2022, I started working for Faithlife, and have a new 'official' user account. Posts on this account shouldn't be taken as official Faithlife views!
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tom collinge said:
Thanks Mark for this information, but I am still confused.
I think my confusion is coming from the fact that it sounds like to me that you are assuming that the translators for the LXX used the MT as their source.
This is not true (IMHO). They are different in several ways. For example, Jeremiah and Job are shorter in the LXX. Events occur at different locations within books. Esther is extremely different. (IMHO) The LXX and the MT do not come from the same source text, and the LXX was not translated from MT. So, I am not sure how these texts can be aligned together
1) In order to say that something is different you need to compare it word by word. Which is why you Align the texts.
2) The shorter LXX text of Jeremiah represents an earlier edition than MT Jeremiah. Still almost always you can find the parallel text in the MT and by aligning the texts you are able to see what was added.
3) Many portions of the OT do not show such divergence this is the exception not the rule.
4) The LXX is comprised of several translations with different translation techniques that need to be studied by comparing MT to the translation.
5) In my opinion the shorter text of Job usually does not represent a shorter Hebrew Vorlage.
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David Knoll said:
2) The shorter LXX text of Jeremiah represents an earlier edition than MT Jeremiah. Still almost always you can find the parallel text in the MT and by aligning the texts you are able to see what was added.
Several years ago I was working with a Bible Translator. He used the term “Missing Text”. [or Added Text]
I (hopefully politely) taught him to use the term “no corresponding text” as follows:
Please see the thread at http://community.logos.com/forums/p/25051/185812.aspx#185812
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Richard DeRuiter said:
That said, let me say this. Somewhere I read that the LXX translation was based on a different Hebrew text tradition than the Masoretic text. Perhaps a Babylonian or Alexandrian text tradition. This suggests that the material of the LXX that differs from the Masoretic text, may still have a (now lost) Hebrew text behind it. Attempts have been made to reconstruct this theoretical text. One of these attempts is the Tov (Parallel Aligned Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Texts of Jewish Scripture) resource mentioned above.
According to the introduction to the Tov resource there are at least fragments in Hebrew of Sirach, and Psalm 151 among the Dead Sea scrolls. To me, this is very intriguing.
Also the LXX manuscripts we have are older than the Masoretic manuscripts we have, suggesting that the LXX may be more reliable (at least as to preserving the original LXX). Many assume that because the Masoretic text is Hebrew it is a more reliable manuscript than the LXX. Certainly, the MT is in Hebrew, and thus has many, many advantages. But that doesn't mean that it is more reliable. In fact, most English translations occassionaly side with the LXX over the MT in places (often because "the Hebrew for this phrase is uncertain"). Finally, the NT quotations of the OT almost always are directly quotations from the LXX (other times paraphrases of the LXX), leading many to attribute greater authority to it than we might otherwise -- certainly the NT writers considered it an authoritative translation.
With the discovery of the DSS this is no longer true. The DSS mss are older than our oldest LXX mss. I wouldn't support any speculation regarding a Babylonian or Alexandrian tradition behind the MT. The fact is that there are mss in the DSS which support MT readings, LXX readings and Sam Pent readings. It would appear that the text was not firmly established at the time. Some of the DSS were written not much later than some of the OT books themselves.
george
gfsomselיְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן
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Mark Barnes said:
I guess because it's a reverse interlinear, then the Greek text is primary. On a matter of principle, I don't think I'd expect or want a reverse interlinear to display text from the source language that wasn't included in the receptor language. For example, I wouldn't want the Greek of 1 John 5:7b suddenly appearing in my ESV reverse interlinear when the ESV editors have chosen not to include it. So, yes, the standard (not reverse) interlinear (Tov's, as you say) is the right place to go in my view.
Due to the fact that there are places where the LXX has what appears to be additional text when compared to the MT and in other cases is missing for portions of the MT (besides being in a different order -- particularly for Jeremiah) I would recommend that Logos NOT due an interlinear style. I would recommend rather that it be formatted after the fashion of the Aland Synopsis Quattuor Evangeliorum (separate columns as in the print edition). This would display not only where the text differs slightly but also where there is text missing or added. I would also recommend that in cases of a reorginization of the text that it be printed in a different color so as to flag the reorganization.
george
gfsomselיְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן
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David Ames said:
Several years ago I was working with a Bible Translator. He used the term “Missing Text”. [or Added Text]
I (hopefully politely) taught him to use the term “no corresponding text” as follows:
In principle I would agree. But in this particular example of Jeremiah the later edition (MT) ADDED‼! to a previous one (as LXX).
You can notice the tendencies and style of the additions.
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George Somsel said:
Due to the fact that there are places where the LXX has what appears to be additional text when compared to the MT and in other cases is missing for portions of the MT (besides being in a different order -- particularly for Jeremiah) I would recommend that Logos NOT due an interlinear style. I would recommend rather that it be formatted after the fashion of the Aland Synopsis Quattuor Evangeliorum (separate columns as in the print edition). This would display not only where the text differs slightly but also where there is text missing or added. I would also recommend that in cases of a reorginization of the text that it be printed in a different color so as to flag the reorganization.
This is a nice idea in terms of graphic presentation but the thing about Tov's parallel aligned text or the interlinear is that it enables you (if rightly implemented) to run searches and produce statistics. This makes this tool much more than a book in different form.
I think what you suggest is important when presenting the two texts side by side in Logos (Two tabs) but for me as someone who uses Logos for searches, the interlinear is of higher priority.
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Mark Barnes said:
I'm not assuming the translators for the LXX used the MT as their source, though they clearly have a common heritage. Indeed, I suggested above that one of the uses of this interlinear, would be to compare the Hebrew of the MT and the reconstructed Hebrew from the LXX (see below) text through the Text Comparison tool, to more easily determine where the differences are.
Tov's interlinear has three lines. The first line is the MT. The second line (which only appears when the LXX differs from the MT) is a reconstructed Hebrew text (basically the LXX translated back into biblical Hebrew). The third line is then the LXX. There's are all aligned on each word, as you'd expect from an interlinear. There are obviously notes that explain this process at different places. There is also a second resource that contains some of the variants of the Septuagint.
Here's an extract from the foreword:
Each line of the parallel files shows equivalent elements of the MT and the LXX. Occasionally, there is a second line of Hebrew text.
The first line of the Hebrew records all elements of MT as formal equivalents of the LXX. This recording probably represents the most objective way of registering the relation between the LXX and MT, but at times it is of limited value since the Greek translation was actually made from a different Hebrew text. The second Hebrew line (the Reconstructed Hebrew Source) refers to that Hebrew text.
The second Hebrew line (the Reconstructed Hebrew Source) contains a selection of readings retroverted from Greek to Hebrew, presumably found in the Hebrew parent text of the LXX. At the same time, the reconstruction line contains some remarks on differences between the LXX and MT in matters of translation technique…
The books of the Apocrypha for which an ancient Hebrew source was available have been made an integral part of the data base. The reconstruction of Sirach utilized 8 Hebrew fragments from the Cairo Geniza, Masada, and the Dead Sea Scrolls. Two of these manuscripts have a second, correcting hand, cited separately. Psalm 151 in Hebrew was also discovered among the Dead Sea Scrolls. 1 Esdras includes extensive parallels from Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah. In addition, the Hebrew portions of Baruch 1.1-3.8 were reconstructed by Professor Tov based on the extensive parallels (mainly from Jeremiah).
Thanks Mark for your patients. I think I understand what you are saying (emphases on the phrase "I think). It sounds like to me that y'all are trying to do with the MT and LXX is the same thing a NT scholar would do with comparing the text between Luke and Mark (See how Luke change Mark, how Luke added to Mark, and what Luke left out of Mark).
I can see some scholarly value doing this is if someone was working on their PhD.
I do have to say that I have a problem with the reconstructed Hebrew source. It sounds like to me that Tov did the same thing with his " reconstructed Hebrew source" that Erasmus did with his Textus Receptus (received text), I do not have it, so I am going to make it up.
I am curious how this source will help me. Using a very well know difference between the MT and LXX, how does Tov handle Isaiah 7:14? The MT has עַלְמָ֗ה (sexually mature female of marriageable age, which may or may not be sexually
active) and the LXX has παρθένος (virgin). How does this source help me with this difference. Thanks0 -
tom collinge said:
Thanks Mark for your patients. I think I understand what you are saying (emphases on the phrase "I think). It sounds like to me that y'all are trying to do with the MT and LXX is the same thing a NT scholar would do with comparing the text between Luke and Mark (See how Luke change Mark, how Luke added to Mark, and what Luke left out of Mark).
Or how the Hebrew "Luke" is reflected in the Greek "Mark" in terms of Linguistics style and translation technique. (Luke = MT and Mark = LXX)
tom collinge said:I do have to say that I have a problem with the reconstructed Hebrew source. It sounds like to me that Tov did the same thing with his " reconstructed Hebrew source" that Erasmus did with his Textus Receptus (received text), I do not have it, so I am going to make it up.
Of course reconstruction is subjective. But we have to go through this process and many times the reconstruction is quite certain: Suppose you have ארם in the MT and ανθρωπος. Surely we can agree that the Hebrew text be reconstructed as אדם. The interchange of ד and ר is common in Hebrew manuscripts and this is certainly what the translator saw (or thought he was seeing). This cannot be a translational shift or an inner Greek process. This change is dependent on the Hebrew script. Now if I want to find all such examples I have no way of doing it using a single search in Logos. I have to open another program open this small window that allows me to enter the Hebrew Lemma and the Greek Lemma to find all the places where the translator read אדם instead of ארם. I can also search all the places that Tov tagged as ד/ר interchanges.
It is true that the reconstruction is putative. But it is based on sound methodology which Tov explained in TCU. Tov does not claim that the reconstruction has any revelational value. It is a mere tool that aids the researcher in textual criticism of the OT. If you do not reconstruct a putative Hebrew text then the LXX is useless for Textual Criticism. Some (postmodern) people may say that we should not utilise the LXX for textual criticism since we cannot achieve 100% certainty for our results. Tov has a different opinion. I agree with him.
tom collinge said:I am curious how this source will help me. Using a very well know difference between the MT and LXX, how does Tov handle Isaiah 7:14? The MT has עַלְמָ֗ה (sexually mature female of marriageable age, which may or may not be sexually active) and the LXX has παρθένος (virgin). How does this source help me with this difference
I actually read Isaiah with Tov two or three years ago. In the parallel aligned text he assumes that the Hebrew text read עלמה as in MT. Being his student I can assume the reason for that being the nature of the LXX of Isaiah which is free and not literal. The translator tries to adapt Isaiah to his Hellenistic audience. Since the words are semantically close to each other (denoting women) Tov would say that the choice of the word should be attributed to the translator and that a different Hebrew Vorlage need not be reconstructed. Tov is more likely to reconstruct a text which differs from the consonantal base of MT for literal translations (like 1 Samuel for instance). All this I say based on what I have learnt from him. I haven't really asked him for his opinion on this case.
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I would find a updated aligned Hebrew-Greek LXX extremely helpful. I find it most helpful in my personal daily Bible studies. In studying a NT passage, the underlying Hebrew is more important to me than the Greek. The Messiah and the disciples were most likely not mother-tongue Greek speakers. Some would say they were mother tongue Aramaic speakers, but I would argue that they were more likely Hebrew speakers. In any event, it is clear that the Hebrew Scriptures were an integral part of their lives. The teachings of the Messiah were most likely delivered in Hebrew (or perhaps Aramiac, but not Greek). So regardless of whether or not the written manuscripts were first recorded in Greek, they were a translation from the spoken Hebrew. So to really understand the full semantic context of Messiah's message, one must understand the semantic range and implied meaning of the underlying Hebrew words and concepts. So a study of the Hebrew word associated with (normally translated into) Greek would be of equal or even greater use than a word study of the "translated" Greek NT text. The best source we have to determine associations of this nature is the LXX. One can do a LXX search of all uses of a Greek word used in the NT to see if there is a consistent or dominant translation pattern. It is not uncommon for that to be that case. And in such cases, it can be very helpful to then study the various OT contexts of that particular word to gain insights into the semantic range and implied meaning associated with the translated Greek term. (IMHO)
All that to say I would place a very high priority on any improvements that can be made to an aligned Greek-Hebrew LXX reference.
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Wyn Laidig said:
he teachings of the Messiah were most likely delivered in Hebrew (or perhaps Aramiac, but not Greek). So regardless of whether or not the written manuscripts were first recorded in Greek, they were a translation from the spoken Hebrew.
- Hebrew ceased to be the primary language of the Jewish
people, all but forgotten in the Diaspora and used only in (some) religious
services in Palestine itself. - The
common language for Jesus and other Palestinian Jews was Aramaic. In Palestine,
Aramaic paraphrases of scripture called targums (or targumim)
were widely used. - The
common language for Jews throughout the Diaspora, however, was Greek (in which
all books of the New Testament would be written). - The
ascendance of Greek over Hebrew as the dominant language for most Jewish people
would both symbolize and actualize a dominance of Greek culture over Jewish
culture.
0 - Hebrew ceased to be the primary language of the Jewish
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I realize this has been the traditional viewpoint, however not all scholars are in agreement. It is interesting that a significant portion of the DSS were written in Hebrew.
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tom collinge said:
Hebrew ceased to be the primary language of the Jewish people, all but forgotten in the Diaspora and used only in (some) religious services in Palestine itself.
The common language for Jesus and other Palestinian Jews was Aramaic. In Palestine, Aramaic paraphrases of scripture called targums (or targumim) were widely used.This is a questionable assertion. Josephus, when describing the seige of Jerusalem by Titus, speaks of the reaction of those in Jerusalem when stones were launched into the city by the Romans.
§272 σκοποὶ οὖν αὐτοῖς ἐπὶ τῶν πύργων19† καθεζόμενοι προεμήνυον, ὁπότε σχασθείη τὸ ὄργανον καὶ ἡ20† πέτρα φέροιτο, τῇ πατρίῳ γλώσσῃ βοῶντες “ὁ υἱὸς ἔρχεται.” διίσταντο21† δὲ καθ ̓ οὓς ᾔει καὶ προκατεκλίνοντο, καὶ συνέβαινε φυλαττομένων1† ἄπρακτον διεκπίπτειν τὴν πέτραν.Josephus, F., & Niese, B. (1888-). Flavii Iosephi opera recognovit Benedictvs Niese ... The Wars of the Jews, 5.272. Berolini: apvd Weidmannos.I give the Whiston translation of this passage
(272) accordingly the watchmen that sat upon the towers gave them notice when the engine was let go, and the stone came from it, and cried out aloud in their own country language, "THE SON COMETH:" so those that were in its way stood off, and threw themselves down upon the ground; by which means, and by their thus guarding themselves, the stone fell down and did them no harm.
Josephus, Flavius and William Whiston. The Works of Josephus : Complete and Unabridged. Peabody: Hendrickson, 1996.
Note that the statement "The son is coming" makes no sense in the context unless it is a translation of the Hebrew בֵּנ בָא which is a shortening of אֶבֶן בָּא "a stone is coming." What is significant about this is that it doesn't work in Aramaic.george
gfsomselיְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן
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