διὰ τοῦτο morphological tag

Can someone tell me why τοῦτο is sometimes tagged as a nominative when it's used as the object of διά? One place this occurs is Mt 13:13. I understand that it could be nominative by form but being the object of διά would seem to signify that it is an accusative.

Find more posts tagged with

Comments

MJ. Smith

Does this answer thee question?

Gary O'Neal

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/775750#Comment_775750

Thanks MJ, but no, it doesn't. That resource has it tagged as a nominative also which makes no sense to me. Διά is a preposition which takes its object in either the genitive or accusative case. Τοῦτο could be either nominative or accusative, but since it is the object of διά, it seems to me that it should be tagged as an accusative. Logos has tagged it as a nominative (following διά) 12 times--almost all of them in Matthew.

MJ. Smith

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/775758#Comment_775758

bump 1

EastTN

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/776648#Comment_776648

Bump

NB.Mick

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/776893#Comment_776893

maybe an email to revint@logos.com is in order...

Rick Brannan (Logos)

Can someone tell me why τοῦτο is sometimes tagged as a nominative when it's used as the object of διά?

Because we're human? [:)]

I'll file a report on this for review. Thanks for bringing it up.

Gary O'Neal

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/777123#Comment_777123

Thanks Rick. I was halfway afraid it was one of those exceptions we learned in first year grammar that I just couldn't remember.