Subject of the Hebrew verb "bara"

It is generally accepted that God is the only subject of the verb "bara" in the Old Testament but this doesn't seem to be matched with how it is tagged as below:

Am I missing something or is there a tagging issue here?

Thanks, Graham

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NB.Mick

Graham,

I don't speak Hebrew, but just going from the English grammar, when 'bara' is used in passive, the grammatical subject of the sentence is the thing that was created, even though it would remain true that God is the only entity that does creating when 'bara' is used (a counterexample would be a pot created by a human potter or so).

There are these fancy new things with "experiencer" etc whose name eludes me that should get those things right regardless of the grammar used.

Graham Criddle

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/813336#Comment_813336

Hi Mick

I don't speak Hebrew, but just going from the English grammar, when 'bara' is used in passive, the grammatical subject of the sentence is the thing that was created, even though it would remain true that God is the only entity that does creating when 'bara' is used (a counterexample would be a pot created by a human potter or so).

That makes sense - thanks

There are these fancy new things with "experiencer" etc whose name eludes me that should get those things right regardless of the grammar used.

"Agent" does absolutely show this

Thanks again, Graham