How to find the difference between two Hebrew words?

My bible study guide asks this question from Psalms 62 (NKJV):

1. What is significant about the change from “waits” (verse 1) to “wait” (verse 5)?

Jensen, I. L. (1989). Psalms (p. 69). San Bernardino, CA: Here’s Life Publishers, Inc.

I used the word study function but still don't clearly see the difference between the two words. What would you suggest?

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Keep Smiling 4 Jesus :)

1. What is significant about the change from “waits” (verse 1) to “wait” (verse 5)?

Inline interlinear in NKJV shows verse 1 waits was supplied by NKJV translators (italicized). Verse 1 "silently" translates a noun.

Verse 5 wait translates a verb.

Keep Smiling [:)]

Lonnie Spencer

My bible study guide asks this question from Psalms 62 (NKJV):

1. What is significant about the change from “waits” (verse 1) to “wait” (verse 5)?

Jensen, I. L. (1989). Psalms (p. 69). San Bernardino, CA: Here’s Life Publishers, Inc.

I used the word study function but still don't clearly see the difference between the two words. What would you suggest?

In verse one there is a noun construct chain going on with soul and silence, an X of Y. The Hebrew word order would put it as silence of soul. So then waits, which is not in the Hebrew text, is added to interpret the relationship of silence and soul in the construct chain. I think how they came to this conclusion is because of the parallelism with the first line in verse 5- "My soul, wait silently for God alone, Instead of a noun construct chain as in verse one, there is a Hebrew verb for wait in verse 5. It seams that verse one is stating a fact or a reason to wait while verse 5 is an imperative to wait. I think it's interesting that the NKJV does show the construct chain by putting soul and silence side by side, followed by the interpretative wait, while other translations like the ESV puts the interpretive wait in between the two construct words. I think this order helps show it better as one thought unit.

Mark Barnes

What is significant about the change from “waits” (verse 1) to “wait” (verse 5)?

The question isn't about the Hebrew text, but about the English translation.

I think they're simply pointing out that "waits" (v1) is the present state of his soul, whilst "wait" (v5) is a direction he gives to his soul. What's significant about that? The second half of verses 1 and 5 give you the answer. His soul already waits because his salvation comes from God (this looks more to the present). His soul will wait because his hope/expectation is in God (this looks more to the future).

John W

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/916784#Comment_916784

Thanks all for your help in understanding this!