BHS apparatus typo at Num 6:25b?

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Ben | Forum Activity | Posted: Sat, Feb 29 2020 1:14 PM

The Syriac is represented as wn****, but then it says the Hebrew equivalent is wy****? There seems to be a disconnect between teh n- and the y-, no?

NB: I haven’t done Syriac, but it seems to me the n would be a 1cpl, but the Hebrew y is 3ps. Also, I don’t have access to BHS right now, so I don’t know if this is a typo in BHS, a typo in Logos, or if I’m misunderstanding the equivalence between Syriac and Hebrew. 

"The whole modern world has divided itself into Conservatives and Progressives. The business of Progressives is to go on making mistakes. The business of Conservatives is to prevent mistakes from being corrected."- G.K. Chesterton

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HJ. van der Wal | Forum Activity | Replied: Sat, Feb 29 2020 1:53 PM

Shalom Ben!

I can understand your confusion but this is not a typo. In Syriac the 3rd person m. sg. of the imperfect coincides with the first person pl.

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HJ. van der Wal | Forum Activity | Replied: Sat, Feb 29 2020 2:00 PM

FYI:

f) The formation of 3 m. sg. impf. by n instead of y (hence always = 1 pl.) distinguishes the Syriac of Edessa together with the Mandaean not only from Hebr., Arab., Ethiop. and Phœn., but also from the western dialects of Palmyr., Aramaic-Palest., Samarit., Nabat. Whether there is any analogy between it and the forms of the impf. with ל in biblical Aramaic and in Talmudic is doubtful (cf. D § 181, Kautzsch, Bibl. Aram. § 47).

Eberhard Nestle, Syriac Grammar with Bibliography, Chrestomathy and Glossary, trans. R. S. Kennedy, vol. 1 (Berlin: H. Reuther’s Verlagsbuchhandlung, 1889), 46 - https://ref.ly/logosres/syrgrmnestle?ref=Nestle.Nestle%2c+Syr.+Gram.+38c&off=4273 

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