LEB
The LEB is fast becoming my preferred book, yet I can't help wonder why verses like Luke 4:4 are so different than the KJV. When "but by every word of God" is in the KJV and not the LEB, why? We are not talking about thee, thy and thou for smoother reading. Leaving out such a profound and widely quoted phrase is curious.
Comments
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I found this helpful:
https://www.logos.com/product/144705/authorized-the-use-and-misuse-of-the-king-james-bible
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Dear Authorized 53, Click on the superscript "a" at the end of LEB Luke 4.4 and read this footnote:
A quotation from Deut 8:3; most manuscripts add “but by every word of God” here
Harris, W. H., III, Ritzema, E., Brannan, R., Mangum, D., Dunham, J., Reimer, J. A., & Wierenga, M. (Eds.). (2012). The Lexham English Bible. Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press.
Steve
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One easy place to look on questions like this that is probably available to you in your Logos Library is the "Lexham Textual Notes on the Bible." Here's the comment on Luke 4:4:
Rick Brannan
Data Wrangler, Faithlife
My books in print0 -
I want to thank you gentlemen for the information. It has been most helpful. I have another question: How much influence has the Wescott-Hortt translation of the Greek used for so many new versions of the Bible had in the LEB Bible?
Since I suppose this question might be better suited in a new place I will look for replies there.
Thank you
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Authorized53 said:
I have another question: How much influence has the Wescott-Hortt translation of the Greek used for so many new versions of the Bible had in the LEB Bible?
How much influence? Took over completely so that it is the only Greek accepted in modern Bibles.
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David Ames said:
Took over completely so that it is the only Greek accepted in modern Bibles.
Er ... ah... except for those that only accept 1904 text of the Ecumenical Patriarchate of Constantinople. I would expect several other such official Greek NT manuscripts but this is the one that popped into my mind. Now wouldn't you have been disappointed if I had brought up the Eastern and Oriental traditions - not all Christians are Western.
Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."
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MJ. Smith said:David Ames said:
Took over completely so that it is the only Greek accepted in modern Bibles.
Er ... ah... except for those that only accept 1904 text of the Ecumenical Patriarchate of Constantinople.
Have it in my Library. Will review. Is there an English translation of a Bible that uses it as its source?
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John 20:1 From Text Comparison: Have added it to my list of translations that I use for deep study. Will know where there is a difference in the text.
TR1894MR τη δε μια των σαββατων μαρια η μαγδαληνη ερχεται πρωι σκοτιας ετι ουσης εις το μνημειον και βλεπει τον λιθον ηρμενον εκ του μνημειου
NTPT Τῇ δὲ μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ ἔρχεται πρωῒ σκοτίας ἔτι οὔσης εἰς τὸ μνημεῖον, καὶ βλέπει τὸν λίθον ἠρμένον ἐκ τοῦ μνημείου.
BYZ τη δε μια των σαββατων μαρια η μαγδαληνη ερχεται πρωι σκοτιας ετι ουσης εις το μνημειον και βλεπει τον λιθον ηρμενον εκ του μνημειου
SBLGNT Τῇ δὲ μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ ἔρχεται πρωῒ σκοτίας ἔτι οὔσης εἰς τὸ μνημεῖον, καὶ βλέπει τὸν λίθον ἠρμένον ἐκ τοῦ μνημείου.
Is there an English translation that uses it as the base text? [Hopefully in FL as I do not know Greek and using Google translate is a bit much for an entire Bible]
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MJ. Smith said:
Now wouldn't you have been disappointed if I had brought up the Eastern and Oriental traditions - not all Christians are Western.
I would not have been "disappointed". Bringing those "traditions" up is EXACTLY what we expect from you. Thanks for expanding our horizons.
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David Ames said:
John 20:1 From Text Comparison: Have added it to my list of translations that I use for deep study. Will know where there is a difference in the text.
https://www.logos.com/product/32406/eastern-greek-orthodox-bible-new-testament0 -
Thanks and have added it to the collection that I use to drive my deep studies.
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Biggest difference between the KJV and the EOB NT that I have noted so far is whether they use the term “turn” or “change” in place of be converted (as in Matt 18:3 and Matt 13:15) and whether they accept the critical text or not in any given verse. [Only looking at the English]
As I understand (have been taught) the difference in “turn” or “change” in place of be converted is that turn, or change is the first step that we take and being converted is of God. We start the process and He finishes it.
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I very much doubt anyone knows what the greek for 'turn' meant in the 1st century. Or in the 2nd century bce (Isaiah). Personally, I like MM's papyri examples (essentially take an interest in ... stop ignoring) which fits the sequence.
But 'turn' itself is odd. What did it mean in the 13th century. Wycliff-1 is 'turn' .... a decade later Wycliff-2 was 'convert'. Obviously, the meaning waffling goes back. Or course, 'converted' sort of bit the translation-dust.
Your take on the words as taught, is why translations should always fit ones doctrine. Smiling.
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