I just downloaded Faithlife and I noticed that there was a vast amount of information available as I was studying John. I am always cautious about study bible notes because we are not ignorant that not everyone views scripture from the same lenses. Therefore I am always proceeding with caution when it comes to commentaries.
I came across this note and was a bit taken back.
The Gospel of John and the Johannine Letters
1:1 In the beginning John begins by quoting the opening words of Genesis (see Gen 1:1) in Greek. He uses Genesis 1:1–5 to establish the “Word,” or Logos, as a preexistent agent of creation present with Yahweh from the beginning.
This first section of the prologue (vv. 1–5) functions as an interpretation of Gen 1:1–5 read through the framework of Prov 8:22–31. This exegetical technique bears subtle marks of Jewish exegesis called midrash. A midrashic interpretation typically begins with a text from the Pentateuch and explains it through links to a text from the Prophets or the Writings. John begins with a quote that invokes the context of Gen 1:1–5 with its imagery of creation by divine word and the opposition between light and darkness. His interpretation centers on the Word as Creator and bearer of divine light.
In making this connection, John states that Jesus existed prior to the first acts of creation. God’s Son isn’t an act of creation, but the means of it (compare Col 1:15–23; Heb 1:1–4). It is all the more dramatic, therefore, that the one through whom all of creation came to be has become part of the creation.
Here is why alarms went off for me.
1. It seems that the writer is implying (IT SEEMS) I want to be careful not to accuse if I am reading this wrong. But it seems that the writer is suggesting that John is writing from a rabinic midrash perspective? what I mean is that John was using the method of midrash to interpret Genesis 1:1 and Prov 8. From what I understand of midrash is that its a complex system of trying to interpret inconsistencies found in the Old Testament and Jewish Rabbi's have made up elaborate stories to try to make sense of these inconsistencies. Such as Abraham smashing his fathers idols to name one.
Also using Prov 8 is problematic because it is the very text Arius used to prove Jesus was a created being.
So it seems that the writer is suggesting that John and the New Testament writers were products of rabbinic midrash interpretation and their writings were influenced by such. To me that is problematic because midrash interpretation is whatever the interpreter sees in the text or makes of the text which is subjective.
I am not a theologian or a scholar, I am simply a brother in Christ who is trying to be faithful to the text and trying to understand it from an orthodox position. So I am not sitting here in judgement of the writer, I just happen to see some things that concern me and was wondering what others thoughts were on this.
Thanks!
Steve