When was first Gospel written and what was it?

Ronald Quick
Ronald Quick Member Posts: 2,965 ✭✭✭
edited November 20 in English Forum

I am reading Many Infallible Proofs by Pierson and he states:

The exact year of the production of each of the four gospels cannot be
fixed. But the most careful and scholarly modern criticism puts the date
of St. Matthew’s record at about 38 A. D., and his record of this
prophecy is the fullest, as well as the first. Mark wrote A. D., 67 to
69. Luke A. D. 63. John A. D. 95.

I thought I had always read that Mark was considered to be the first gospel written and its date to be around 50AD.  Yet Pierson states that modern scholarship (1885) identifies Matthew to be the first gospel written and in 38AD.

Anyone know of any Logos resources that can address when Biblical scholars change opinions and for what reason?

Thanks.

 

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Comments

  • Graham Criddle
    Graham Criddle MVP Posts: 32,490

    Hi Ronald

    Anyone know of any Logos resources that can address when Biblical scholars change opinions and for what reason?

    Do you have the Timeline tool - that could provide a good jumping off point.

    image

    Alternatively, New Testament introductions or Encyclopedia should provide some insights

    Or scan the Logos website with http://www.logos.com/products/search?q=gospel&Resource+Type=Monographs

    Hope this helps

    Graham

     

  • DMB
    DMB Member Posts: 13,444 ✭✭✭

    Ronald, you can STILL find 'careful and scholarly modern criticism' today that applies those dates (the Luke one is curious).  I assume you're wanting a broad discussion on the plus's and minus's supporting the various views.  Almost inevitably you have to read each gospel's commentaries (plural).

    Regarding Mark, from a mathematical case (syntax pattern sequencing), the early chapters appear to precede Matthew, but the later chapters appear to come from Matthew (i.e. an update to or by 'Mark').

    In the last few days my own interest in the question has perked up having run into several clear reference to 'writings' and being referenced as 'the Gospel' and 'the Gospel of the Lord' in the apostolic fathers.  Unfortunately some of what's associated with that 'Gospel' isn't found in 'our' gospels.

    "If myth is ideology in narrative form, then scholarship is myth with footnotes." B. Lincolm 1999.

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646

    I am reading Many Infallible Proofs by Pierson and he states:

    The exact year of the production of each of the four gospels cannot be
    fixed. But the most careful and scholarly modern criticism puts the date
    of St. Matthew’s record at about 38 A. D., and his record of this
    prophecy is the fullest, as well as the first. Mark wrote A. D., 67 to
    69. Luke A. D. 63. John A. D. 95.

    I thought I had always read that Mark was considered to be the first gospel written and its date to be around 50AD.  Yet Pierson states that modern scholarship (1885) identifies Matthew to be the first gospel written and in 38AD.

    Anyone know of any Logos resources that can address when Biblical scholars change opinions and for what reason?

    Thanks.

     

    I suppose Streeter's The Four Gospel had a large impact in convincing scholarship (quite rightly in my opinion) that Luke and Matthew are have used Mark and are consequently posterior to Mark.  The older view was based upon Papias' statements, but these only concerned a Hebrew or Aramaic version which must have preceded our much fuller Greek Matthew.

    I don't recall coming across the 50 AD date, even among Evangelicals, for Mark--the standard view places it around 69/70. There is recent monograph by Crossley (available in Logos) that puts forward a good case for a date in the early 40s (and Crossley is an agnostic, and not a Christian). 

     

     

     

     

     

  • tom
    tom Member Posts: 3,213

    Anyone know of any Logos resources that can address when Biblical scholars change opinions and for what reason?

    Almost any NT Bible introduction book has information on this topic.  For an example, I know Exploring the New Testament, vol. 1: Gospel and Acts (http://www.logos.com/product/28227/new-testament-studies-bundle), talks about dating the gospels.

    It all gets down to this (IMHO) - while we have several theories, we truly do not know.

  • Mike Childs
    Mike Childs Member Posts: 3,117 ✭✭✭

    It all gets down to this (IMHO) - while we have several theories, we truly do not know.

    That truly is the bottom line.  It is always a matter of interpretation and speculation.

    You are really talking about a miniscule amount of time from the actual events to the writing of the Gospels, historically speaking.  It was no more than 40 to 50 years at most, and that is pretty current for ancient events.  There was little time for the elaborate theories long oral tradition or evolving and synthesized texts to develop.  There were eye witnesses still around when the Gospels were written.

    What is significant to me in dating the New Testament documents is the apparent lack of any knowledge of the destruction of the temple, and the assumption that readers are familiar with temple activities.  The destruction of the temple would have been a heck of an argument to be used in a book like Hebrews, for example.  Makes me lean toward early dating.

    But Tom is 100% correct that we truly do not know. 

     


    "In all cases, the Church is to be judged by the Scripture, not the Scripture by the Church," John Wesley

  • David Wilson
    David Wilson Member Posts: 1,238 ✭✭✭

    We inevitably bring a lot of our own expectations, assumptions and culture to the question and often forget about or fail to sufficiently understand the original context in which the Gospel was spread. Probably none of us can expect to fully grasp the context and circumstances surrounding the development of the written Gospel. 

    Following Pentecost the apostles went out in different directions to spread the Gospel "to the ends of the earth". No one waited for anyone else to assemble a written copy of the whole Story. By the time the churches got around to assembling a written Gospel they were doing so in different local contexts having received the stories from their different sources and there was likely limited comparison except between churches in reasonably proximity.    

    John in his old age even reminds us that there were more stories than anyone has ever written down.  It is entirely possible that individual stories and groups of stories were written down well before what we now consider to be an entire Gospel book was assembled as such.  John's Gospel looks like it is a (relatively late) attempt to write down many of the stories that others had not included. The passage in John's Gospel about the woman caught in the act of adultery is an interesting clue that there may have been individual stories written seperately that eventually no one knew who had written them (it being not part of the earliest manuscripts of John's Gospel).  It is entirely possible that we are missing many of the stories that were originally spread verbally.  The bottom line I think is that what we have received as the Gospel stories is sufficient and we do not need to worry that we may be missing something absolutely critical.

    I totally agree with Michael that one key clue to dating is the destruction of Jerusalem.  The Romans saw this Jewish revolt as key to keeping their Empire under control and could not afford to let anyone think they would get away with what the Jews were doing in their rebellion.  It was a key piece of Roman propaganda that was certainly well spread throughout the Empire and beyond about the fate of Jerusalem and its Temple and hence a pointer to anyone else who might have rebellion on their agenda.  Not mentioning or alluding to it is a good clue that it had not happened at the time of writing as it represented an apocalypse and the end of an era for the Jews and the system of Temple worship.  The Romans made sure everyone everywhere knew about it.

  • Mike Childs
    Mike Childs Member Posts: 3,117 ✭✭✭

    I would also point out how careful the New Testament Church was in accepting books as authentic scripture, and how carefully Jews guarded their sacred texts.  It was hard for a book to become accepted by the Church, as evidenced by the many spurious books that were rejected. 

    As for the idea that various manuscripts were synthesized, that is hard for me to believe without some real manuscript evidence.  When you think that the Dead Sea Scrolls pushed back the oldest manuscript of Isaiah about 1,000 years from what we had, yet there was practically no change in the book's content, you see how careful the Jews were with their sacred literature.  Apparently the church was equally careful.  And again, the time frame is historically miniscule.  Certainly not long enough for the original copies to be rejected and replaced in every day use.  Just think how resistant people today are to new translations of the Scripture.  Many people will never move beyond versions that are four centuries old!

     


    "In all cases, the Church is to be judged by the Scripture, not the Scripture by the Church," John Wesley

  • David Wilson
    David Wilson Member Posts: 1,238 ✭✭✭

    Totally agree that there was a lot of care taken about accepting books as scripture - this seems to have applied to what the church as a whole took to be includable in what was understood to be scripture, which focussed primarily on what was written by or on behalf of those who had been eye witnesses.

    We do know that there was other material in circulation and accepted as genuine but not as scripture, examples being letters from the church fathers etc.  We also se from the Dead Sea scolls that the Qumran community likely accepted as scripture things that were either lost to or not considered important by the early church.  (Psalm 151 might be an example of such).

    It is unlikely that individual stories written down by individual church communities would have preserved and become available as real manuscript evidence as they would have had the priority of local sermon notes rather than scripture and would be relatively unimportant once a more complete book of them had been assembled and not likely to have been individually copied beyond their first edition. 

    Not sure what type of evidence it would take to prove or disprove that manuscripts might have been synthesized from components at any point.
    John 7:53-8:11 might be an interesting case to bring out some ideas on that point.

  • Francis
    Francis Member Posts: 3,807

    The kind of evidence that is used in dating the gospels is not all of the same objective value. On the one hand, quotations of the gospels in other (datable) sources make them anterior to these sources. Secondly, one may or may not accept as reliable the traditions (stories) that were passed down that feature this or that gospel and -- if historically reliable -- provide insight into their dating. 

    The destruction of the temple is frequently used as a key event that, if a gospel was written thereafter, would have affected it. There is quite a bit of speculation involved in this kind of argument. It may be right but is not conclusive. 

    Finally, unlike epistles that can be compared against a reconstructed (not without its difficulties) chronology of Acts, the writing of the gospels (unlike the content of the gospels) are not historical events that are featured elsewhere in the NT. The content of the epistles reflects Jesus'  teaching and could attest the prior existence of the gospels. For instance, James and the Sermon on the Mount. However, it is also possible that the teachings of the Lord were known and circulated in other media than the gospels we currently have prior to their standardization and canonization.

  • Bob
    Bob Member Posts: 171

    The exact year of the production of each of the four gospels cannot be
    fixed. But the most careful and scholarly modern criticism puts the date
    of St. Matthew’s record at about 38 A. D., and his record of this
    prophecy is the fullest, as well as the first. Mark wrote A. D., 67 to
    69. Luke A. D. 63. John A. D. 95.

     

    One significant problem with dealing with the "date" of a particular gospel is the definition of what is meant by "date" and which early version one discusses.  It is probable (certain??) that each gospel circulated in oral form(s) well before the initial version(s) were committed to writing.   As oral tradition it was subject to change, of which we have no tangible evidence.  Then again, even early written manuscripts were subject to editing. Certainly if an apostle were to read one and assert that "it didn't happen that way" the manuscript would have been changed.

    The only evidence we have (mostly) are documents that date to 250-350 AD (BCE) there are a few fragments that might be older. Those are the only "dates" that we can take as fixed, but they have nothing to do with the date of origin for the text. It is possible  that there was at least some cross over of text from document to document giving rise to problems deciding which came "first".

    Bob - 17" MBP quad 2.3GHz 4GB  and iMAC

  • DMB
    DMB Member Posts: 13,444 ✭✭✭

    Robert ... sure you don't want to edit that last paragraph?

    "If myth is ideology in narrative form, then scholarship is myth with footnotes." B. Lincolm 1999.

  • Alexander
    Alexander Member Posts: 494

    The Dead Sea Scrolls discoveries included several documents that could be dated no later than 68 AD which include (you will have to weigh the argument/counter argument for yourself) portions of the Gospel of Mark. It's all fragments but if it is reliable, it would put Mark at a vary early date. The unfortunate part about dating text is the amount of bias. If any scientist or researcher tell you they are free of bias, run the other direction. We simply do not have iron clade guaranteed proof one way or another as to the exact dating. I personally find early dates the most compelling but again, some of that is bias. 

  • Ronald Quick
    Ronald Quick Member Posts: 2,965 ✭✭✭

    Thanks for all the replies.

    By the way, earlier this year Daniel Wallace reported that a first century manuscript of Mark has been found.  http://www.csntm.org/

  • Mike Childs
    Mike Childs Member Posts: 3,117 ✭✭✭

    It is probable (certain??) that each gospel circulated in oral form(s) well before the initial version(s) were committed to writing.

    I am not at all convinced that is probable, much less certain. 

    If you mean that the Gospel events were told and preached, well of course.  If you mean the Gospel of Mark was memorized and passed around for years before it was written, well, why?  Did Mark, or whoever wrote it, have to learn to write before putting it down?  And for how long?  The time frame is historically miniscule, and the first Christians already had sacred writings from the OT.  Why would they not write down the Gospels?  The early church was writing letters, etc.

    Also, the assumption that oral tradition is routinely subject to change does not reflect the care given to sacred oral tradition by many cultures, where such things are memorized with great care to the last syllable, and to change a syllable is taboo. 

    Even more so than modern Masonic rituals.

     


    "In all cases, the Church is to be judged by the Scripture, not the Scripture by the Church," John Wesley

  • DMB
    DMB Member Posts: 13,444 ✭✭✭

    I've always wondered what 'oral' meant.

    The 'apostolic fathers' appear to be recognized 'leaders' of the church in the late 1st century and early 2nd century, but really have trouble even remembering that 'the Lord' (their words, so they indeed know about him!) had quite a few statements specific to the issues they were trying to solve. They're far quicker to reach into the LXX, and local traditions for their points.  It's only decades later that people finally remember something Jesus said.  (Not implying a late date to the gospels).

    Which .... for the curious, can we recommend  https://www.logos.com/product/3047/the-new-testament-in-the-apostolic-fathers .  A very good (though dated) resource.

    "If myth is ideology in narrative form, then scholarship is myth with footnotes." B. Lincolm 1999.

  • Bob
    Bob Member Posts: 171

     

    Robert ... sure you don't want to edit that last paragraph?

    Not really.  As I  said we have some fragments that may be older. I was thinking of the AD68 fragments of John. I was unaware of the Qumran fragment, which is older. The 7Q5 fragment is evidence that two verses of Mark existed no later than 60AD. The fragment may have come from the supposed Q document  (assuming it existed) rather than a complete (or essentially complete) manuscript of Mark.  It may have been a cross-over into Mark. We cannot say since we lack evidence. If the complete 7Q document (or even a large fragment of the document) which included 7Q5 appears I will immediately  consider how I need to revise my conclusion, as will we all.

    Bob - 17" MBP quad 2.3GHz 4GB  and iMAC

  • DMB
    DMB Member Posts: 13,444 ✭✭✭

    Robert ... I think you over-interpreted my question ... you accidentally put the gospels in 3rd century BC.  But I'm sure Mark's days in Qumran will be of interest to others.

    "If myth is ideology in narrative form, then scholarship is myth with footnotes." B. Lincolm 1999.

  • George Somsel
    George Somsel Member Posts: 10,153 ✭✭✭

    It all gets down to this (IMHO) - while we have several theories, we truly do not know.

    That truly is the bottom line.  It is always a matter of interpretation and speculation.

    What do you mean "we don't know"?  I was there.  Remember that I'm almost 39.  [6]

    george
    gfsomsel

    יְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן

  • Mike Childs
    Mike Childs Member Posts: 3,117 ✭✭✭

    What do you mean "we don't know"?  I was there.  Remember that I'm almost 39.  Devil

    Oh, Ancient of Days, my error.  I should have known.  [+o(]  Will not happen again - at least not today. 


    "In all cases, the Church is to be judged by the Scripture, not the Scripture by the Church," John Wesley

  • Mike Childs
    Mike Childs Member Posts: 3,117 ✭✭✭

    The 7Q5 fragment is evidence that two verses of Mark existed no later than 60AD. The fragment may have come from the supposed Q document  (assuming it existed) rather than a complete (or essentially complete) manuscript of Mark.

    Why would we assume that with no manuscript evidence to back it up?  Why would we not assume a fragment of Mark came from Mark, which we know exists?

    You have more faith in documentary theory than me, brother.  Faith is "the assurance of things not seen", especially in documentary theory.  I am praying for more faith, but it just won't come.

     


    "In all cases, the Church is to be judged by the Scripture, not the Scripture by the Church," John Wesley

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646

    It is probable (certain??) that each gospel circulated in oral form(s) well before the initial version(s) were committed to writing.

    I am not at all convinced that is probable, much less certain. 

    It an assumption based upon Bultmann and others, as it allows for a period of creative reinterpretation (aka 'invention') in light of supposed community needs. This is the basis on which Goodacre tries to dismiss Q. 

    Papias states that the Gospel of Mark originated in the preaching of Peter--but there's no need to posit (as much of NT scholarship does) that anecdotes were invented for the occasion. 

    Bauckham still makes a strong argument, in my opinion, that the Gospels reflect eyewitness testimony.

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646

    What do you mean "we don't know"?  I was there.  Remember that I'm almost 39.  Devil

    Oh, Ancient of Days, my error.  I should have known.  Ick!  Will not happen again - at least not today. 

    I must admit, I get a bit annoyed when I hear that we 'can't know' :)

    It seems to reflect a modern lack of faith in the historical process. I like to think that historical problems probably are resolvable--after all, something did actually happen in a real place at a real time--we just haven't quite figured out what yet. Or perhaps someone somewhere has figured it out and we just haven't heard from them yet.

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646

     

    Robert ... sure you don't want to edit that last paragraph?

    Not really.  As I  said we have some fragments that may be older. I was thinking of the AD68 fragments of John. I was unaware of the Qumran fragment, which is older. The 7Q5 fragment is evidence that two verses of Mark existed no later than 60AD. The fragment may have come from the supposed Q document  (assuming it existed) rather than a complete (or essentially complete) manuscript of Mark.  It may have been a cross-over into Mark. We cannot say since we lack evidence. If the complete 7Q document (or even a large fragment of the document) which included 7Q5 appears I will immediately  consider how I need to revise my conclusion, as will we all.

    68AD? what is that? Most (myself included) are of the opinion that John was written in 95 or 96 AD.

    There aren't Q readings that match Mark, so if it's Mark, it must be Mar--unless it's the Ur Markus of the hyper critical school.

  • George Somsel
    George Somsel Member Posts: 10,153 ✭✭✭

    Not really.  As I  said we have some fragments that may be older. I was thinking of the AD68 fragments of John. I was unaware of the Qumran fragment, which is older. The 7Q5 fragment is evidence that two verses of Mark existed no later than 60AD. The fragment may have come from the supposed Q document  (assuming it existed) rather than a complete (or essentially complete) manuscript of Mark.  It may have been a cross-over into Mark. We cannot say since we lack evidence. If the complete 7Q document (or even a large fragment of the document) which included 7Q5 appears I will immediately  consider how I need to revise my conclusion, as will we all.

    The equation of 7Q5 with a fragment of Mark is extremely dubious and not generally accepted. 

    george
    gfsomsel

    יְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן

  • abondservant
    abondservant Member Posts: 4,795

    Not a huge fan of Bultmann...

    I tend to agree with the earlier statement - if it looks like a duck, and quacks like a duck, its probably not a hippo.

    When and if Q turns up, perhaps then my opinion will change.

    L2 lvl4 (...) WORDsearch, all the way through L10,

  • MJ. Smith
    MJ. Smith MVP Posts: 53,143

    It seems to reflect a modern lack of faith in the historical process. I like to think that historical problems probably are resolvable

    You have more optimism regarding what people felt like preserving than I do. In a multi-language Buddhist seminar, we quickly learned that the students of Chinese were really keen on who wrote/translated/edited what when because that is what the Chinese preserve. The students of Sanskrit would laugh as what was preserved for us was linguistics and schools of thought.






    Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."

  • John
    John Member Posts: 398



    When and if Q turns up, perhaps then my opinion will change.

    Exactly. The fictitious Q theory along with markan priority is .... well .... a load of garbage.

    Let me clear this up for everyone if I may. Amazingly difficult as it might be for certain unbelieving "SCHOLARS" to believe, Matthew really was written by Matthew. It is first in the canon because it was written first. There is plenty of evidence to support these facts. Such evidence must be entirely and willfully ignored in order to place mark first, or to give credibility to any other version of oral tradition theories.

    Matthew was the work of all the apostles during the time period in acts 2-3.

     Why four gospels by David Allen Black is a good place to start.

     

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646



    When and if Q turns up, perhaps then my opinion will change.

    Exactly. The fictitious Q theory along with markan priority is .... well .... a load of garbage.

    Let me clear this up for everyone if I may. Amazingly difficult as it might be for certain unbelieving "SCHOLARS" to believe, Matthew really was written by Matthew. It is first in the canon because it was written first. There is plenty of evidence to support these facts. Such evidence must be entirely and willfully ignored in order to place mark first, or to give credibility to any other version of oral tradition theories.

    Matthew was the work of all the apostles during the time period in acts 2-3.

     Why four gospels by David Allen Black is a good place to start.

     

    I take the view that Q is Papias' Aramaic Matthew. Judging from the tone of your post, I have my doubts that you have carefully weighed up all sides. I thought Black's book was inconsistent and implausible.

  • John
    John Member Posts: 398

    I take the view that Q is Papias' Aramaic Matthew. Judging from the tone of your post, I have my doubts that you have carefully weighed up all sides. I thought Black's book was inconsistent and implausible.

    The interesting thing about Blacks  view is that it is really just a restating of what the early church said. To reject Black is to reject the entire body of church Fathers. Faithless "scholars" of course have no problem with that.

    Maybe you should write a review of Blacks book, as all the existing reviews contradict your thoughts.

     

     

  • Dean J
    Dean J Member Posts: 646

    I take the view that Q is Papias' Aramaic Matthew. Judging from the tone of your post, I have my doubts that you have carefully weighed up all sides. I thought Black's book was inconsistent and implausible.

    The interesting thing about Blacks  view is that it is really just a restating of what the early church said. To reject Black is to reject the entire body of church Fathers. Faithless "scholars" of course have no problem with that.

    Maybe you should write a review of Blacks book, as all the existing reviews contradict your thoughts.

     

     

    Yes, the reviews have been positive, but I don't share their enthusiasm.

    And no, he doesn't follow the fathers--he picks and chooses the parts he agrees with. For example (one example), the church fathers--citing Papias--state that Mark wrote his Gospel after Peter left Rome, not while Peter was lecturing (with two large scrolls of Matthew and Mark to stop and check every few minutes if you please--hardly likely!). So perhaps you should read what the fathers said about how the Gospels were composed, instead of assuming that Black has accurately reflected their teaching, and accusing others of the neglect you yourself are guilty of. You need to give a fair hearing to all sides. I'll happily discuss Black's book with you point by point, but not unless you tone down the accusatory and self-congratulatory style of your posts.